Jan Vodháněl is generating some interest from MLS teams as the former Czech youth international is looking to potentially make a switch across the Atlantic.
Sources tell FanSided’s ‘MLS Multiplex’ that Vodháněl, current in the Czech top flite with Bohemians 1905, has three MLS teams interested in the attacking player. The three clubs, according to the source, are D.C. United, Philadelphia Union and Nashville SC.
The player projects as a possible TAM signing if he were to ink with the league.
Playing time has been difficult to find for Vodháněl, who had a recent ligament stretch in his ankle but is back in training and 100 percent. Due to being available on a free transfer in the summer of 2022, Vodháněl has not featured much since the player has made it clear that he would look to move clubs when his contract is up.
Set to turn 24-years old in April, Vodháněl has five appearances with the Czech U20 national team. He can play on either wing although he is most comfortable on the left side. He also can play at wingback in a 3-5-2 alignment.
In Fortuna Liga play this year, he has 171 minutes played across six appearances.
Last year was the most successful of his still young professional career. Vodháněl, a creative and relentless attacker, made 28 appearances for 2,056 minutes played. During this stretch he had five goals and four assists in a league that is very underrated and undervalued in terms of young talent.
Vodháněl fits the mold of many recent MLS signings in that he is a young, emerging player with youth national team experience but with the kind of quality that projects well to the league. That a player with this pedigree and ability has interest in MLS is yet another sign of the growing quality of the league as well as the respect it is gaining overseas.